What is wrong with premaritual sex?
A note taken from the watchtower,look here
An authoritative answer to these questions can come only from our Creator-Jehovah God. And in his Word he tells us to "flee from fornication." (1 Corinthians 6:18) Just what does that mean? The Greek word translated "fornication" is not restricted to sexual intercourse but includes a variety of lewd acts. So if two unmarried people engage in oral sex or in fondling each others' reproductive organs, they are guilty of fornication
One quick note. The greek word translated fornication is not restricted to sexual intercourse but includes a variety of lewd acts... The fun part is that the article doesn´t tell the reader how they came up with theese facts,
According to this site, fornication come from the latin language and speaks what is done in the archway, meaning what prostitues did. This in itself doesn´t tell if they conducted oral sex, mutual masturbation or/and anal-sex, only that fornication is based on the acts of the prostitue
This site, gives the same explanation.
I can´t see any real evidence that tell what is included in the word fonication...
Or this: from the same article:
Then there are the spiritual and emotional aftereffects. King David's sexual sin endangered his friendship with God and nearly led to his spiritual ruin. (Psalm 51) And while David recovered spiritually, he suffered the consequences of his sin for the rest of his life
But wasnt David married? and the women he slept with was alredy married? That can hardly relate to premaritual sex, can it?
Im not saying that the organisation of witnesses is wrong in their interpetation of the bible that says that it is wrong to have sex before you´r married, I just wanted to state som wierd explanitory problems in the article
An authoritative answer to these questions can come only from our Creator-Jehovah God. And in his Word he tells us to "flee from fornication." (1 Corinthians 6:18) Just what does that mean? The Greek word translated "fornication" is not restricted to sexual intercourse but includes a variety of lewd acts. So if two unmarried people engage in oral sex or in fondling each others' reproductive organs, they are guilty of fornication
One quick note. The greek word translated fornication is not restricted to sexual intercourse but includes a variety of lewd acts... The fun part is that the article doesn´t tell the reader how they came up with theese facts,
According to this site, fornication come from the latin language and speaks what is done in the archway, meaning what prostitues did. This in itself doesn´t tell if they conducted oral sex, mutual masturbation or/and anal-sex, only that fornication is based on the acts of the prostitue
This site, gives the same explanation.
I can´t see any real evidence that tell what is included in the word fonication...
Or this: from the same article:
Then there are the spiritual and emotional aftereffects. King David's sexual sin endangered his friendship with God and nearly led to his spiritual ruin. (Psalm 51) And while David recovered spiritually, he suffered the consequences of his sin for the rest of his life
But wasnt David married? and the women he slept with was alredy married? That can hardly relate to premaritual sex, can it?
Im not saying that the organisation of witnesses is wrong in their interpetation of the bible that says that it is wrong to have sex before you´r married, I just wanted to state som wierd explanitory problems in the article
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